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Serfdom in Slovakia

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  • Helen Fedor
    So how exactly was serfom abolished in Slovakia? It sounds as if it were done piecemeal at first, but based on what? H
    Message 1 of 2 , Oct 22, 2007
      So how exactly was serfom abolished in Slovakia? It sounds as if it were done piecemeal at first, but based on what?

      H
    • Martin Votruba
      ... As a result of his admiration of the Enlightenment, Joseph II issued the Peasant Edict of Nov. 1, 1781, that abolished serfdom in the sense of personal
      Message 2 of 2 , Oct 22, 2007
        > how exactly was serfdom abolished in Slovakia?

        As a result of his admiration of the Enlightenment, Joseph II issued
        the Peasant Edict of Nov. 1, 1781, that abolished serfdom in the sense
        of personal bondage, meaning it removed any jurisdiction the nobleman
        may have had over the non-zemans in "his" villages. From then on, it
        was somewhat (only somewhat) comparable to local taxes: the nobleman
        collected "his" local taxes from "his" farmers but was unable to
        meddle in their lives otherwise. And still paid no taxes to Vienna.

        This was abolished in 1848 by the Kingdom of Hungary's insurgent
        government, and the Habsburgs didn't reverse it after the insurgency
        was suppressed. The nobles weren't happy of course, and Vienna
        eventually paid them some partial compensation for what they were
        losing. Each farmers' family kept the land that had been their farm,
        fields and meads "for ever." A village's communal land remained communal.

        (We already talked about how different control over land:

        http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Slovak-World/message/15500

        ... had been in the Kingdom from how it used to work in Britain or
        Russia.)


        Martin

        votruba "at" pitt "dot" edu
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