> Does language count? Didn't the English -ing pronunciation come
> from the lower class and replace the upper class -in (going vs
> goin, hunting vs huntin). I'm not sure of when that would have
> happened though.......
Language would certainly be a good example, Julie. The trouble with
pronunciation is that we know little about that in the more distant
past and we need the 17th century or earlier with this. Shakespeare,
for example, didn't employ -ng/-n as a class indicator. In this
instance, both [-ng] and [-n] coexisted in the speech of both the
lower and higher classes. In Northern British English, e.g., there is
no [-ng], only [-n] and it has nothing to do with class. "Showing
off" with -n is only known as a relatively recent occasional feature
of the speech of some higher upper-class Brits as a display that they
didn't need to worry about "good" pronunciation the way the upwardly
mobile from the lower classes typically did and do.
votruba 'at" pitt "dot" edu