Sartre & Lacan 4
- (This is another part of the Lacan/Sartre discussion)
In a message dated 14/7/99 5:26pm GMT Daylight Time, grantham@...
<< Also, I should mention that jouissance is not the same as sexual pleasure
or enjoyment, in case you don't know that. Sartre's "endorsement" of
jouissance (and his
identification of it as sexual, hmmm...) and his objection to the sexuality
in psychoanalysis aren't necessarily preclusive. >>
Can you elaborate, I thought that was what it meant for Lacan? In
his Dictionary of Lacanian Psychoanalysis, Dylan Evans defines Jouissance as
"The French word jouissance means basically 'enjoyment', but it has a sexual
connotation (i.e., 'orgasm') lacking in the English word 'enjoyment' [...]
in 1957 Lacan uses the term to refer to the enjoyment of a sexual object and
to the pleasures of masturbation, and in 1958 he makes explicit the sense of
jouissance as orgasm. [...] There are strong affinities between Lacan's
concept of jouissance and Freud's concept of the libido [...]"
You suggest that jouissance might be related to the scopic drive.
Interestingly, in Being & Nothingness, Sartre writes
In addition, the idea of discovery, of revelation, includes an idea of
appropriative jouissance. What is seen is possessed; to see is to deflower.
If we examine the comparisons ordinarily used to express the relation between
the knower and the known, we see that many of them are represented as being a
kind of violation by sight. [...] Figures of speech, sometimes vague and
sometimes more precise, like that of the "unviolated depths" of nature
suggest the idea of sexual intercourse more plainly. [...] Every
investigation implies the idea of a nudity which one brings out into the open
by clearing away the obstacles which cover it, just as Actaeon clears away
the branches so that he can have a better view of Diana at her bath. [...]
Thus the totality of these images reveals something which we shall call the
Actaeon Complex. (p. 578)
All the best,