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Some questions about Sexual Misconduct

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  • myanmar_pyay_thar
    Dear Venerable Sirs, I would like to get some clarifications about sexual misconduct . I have done some reasearch for clear definition of it, but the meaning
    Message 1 of 2 , Aug 5, 2005
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      Dear Venerable Sirs,

      I would like to get some clarifications about "sexual misconduct". I
      have done some reasearch for clear definition of it, but the meaning
      is quite broad and different people have different opinions about it.

      I would like to know the following scenerios are "sexual misconducts"
      even if there is mutual consent in each case.

      1. Is "having sex" with anyone other than your own spouse "sexual
      misconduct"?

      2. If a girl is not living with her parents or her brothers or does
      not have any betrothal, is it "sexual miscouduct" if a boy who is not
      married or who doesn't have any betrothal has sex with her??

      3. Or if a man has sex with a woman whom he was convinced to be not
      married or under gurdianship of her parents or brothers or who
      doesn't have any betrothal, is that also "sexual misconduct"?

      4. Is prostitution a kind of misconduct, if one is not married or if
      one is allowed by his/her spouse (as in one of the stories during
      Buddha's era)? If so, why didn't Buddha prohibit it?

      I would like to thank you in advance.

      Regards,

      Myanmar Pyay Thar
    • Nagasena Bhikkhu
      There are many people previously asked about this sort of question. It is attracted to many people because, according to the sutta, the misconduct is only
      Message 2 of 2 , Aug 9, 2005
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        There are many people previously asked about this sort of question. It is attracted to many people because, according to the sutta, the misconduct is only occurred when a person lives with a man or women who is protected by their family: -such as by brother, -by sister, -by relatives, -by spouse or by state. This meaning is considered to be open to the law and social norms of a particular society, as they exercise at the time of misconduct. Buddha did not firmly emphasise about sexual intercouse nor did he want to interfere with family affairs. He only provides knowledge to understand how it can be hindered to the journey of spiritual life.

        Therefore you should first be aware of insight teaching of the Buddha connected to what he means for overcoming of suffering. All sexsual conducts (right or wrong) are related to (Lokiya) mundane affair of a household life and a direct result of (Kama Tanha) craving for sensual pleasure. However, Buddha's teaching is aimed at overcoming from Kama tanha in order for that suffering can be overcome. The ultimate purpose of Buddhist practice to achieve enlightenment, whereas the activity of sex is opposed to its goal.

        Even though sexual misconduct i.e. raping, is widely prohibited in all religions and societies, Buddhism teaches how to understand its consequence if someone is misused the sexual affairs. Both Kamma and Kama get involved here and therefore consequence will follow in line with social norms and law of the state.

        I think you can find the asnwer by yourself, especially in terms of spiritual, mundane and social understanding including the concept of how Kamatanha gets involve in a consequence (Kamma). This is very sensitive issue in the society because every ordinary member of a society has such desire (even though it is not wrong way) on the hand, the society has its own role to control it on the other. It is because human beings are cilivised being. You should remember that there is no Buddhist law, what Buddhism abides is in the law of Dhamma - that is to overcome from suffering.

        Nagasena Bhikkhu

        myanmar_pyay_thar <myanmar_pyay_thar@...> wrote:
        Dear Venerable Sirs,

        I would like to get some clarifications about "sexual misconduct". I
        have done some reasearch for clear definition of it, but the meaning
        is quite broad and different people have different opinions about it.

        I would like to know the following scenerios are "sexual misconducts"
        even if there is mutual consent in each case.

        1. Is "having sex" with anyone other than your own spouse "sexual
        misconduct"?

        2. If a girl is not living with her parents or her brothers or does
        not have any betrothal, is it "sexual miscouduct" if a boy who is not
        married or who doesn't have any betrothal has sex with her??

        3. Or if a man has sex with a woman whom he was convinced to be not
        married or under gurdianship of her parents or brothers or who
        doesn't have any betrothal, is that also "sexual misconduct"?

        4. Is prostitution a kind of misconduct, if one is not married or if
        one is allowed by his/her spouse (as in one of the stories during
        Buddha's era)? If so, why didn't Buddha prohibit it?

        I would like to thank you in advance.

        Regards,

        Myanmar Pyay Thar







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