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19806Re: David (the name): odd question

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  • J Michutka
    Apr 6, 2008
      On Apr 6, 2008, at 10:26 AM, MA Bensh wrote:

      > Is it possible that "illegitimate" is used when the parents are not
      > both of the same religion?

      Someone like Vladimir B can better answer this question, as he has
      done research in any number of villages; but my sense is that no,
      it's not used that way, and certainly not in the village I'm
      researching. For one thing, there's only one church in the village
      (same for a couple of the neighboring villages), so as far as I can
      tell the population is 99.9% Roman Catholic and a handful of Jewish
      families. Very occasionally I have come across a marriage between a
      Catholic and a non-Catholic; once I found a baptismal record where
      the mother's maiden name was one of the Jewish family names in the
      area, that was surprising. Also, illegitimate child can become
      legitimate if the parents later marry; a note is added to the
      baptismal record (which would have originally noted that child being
      baptized as illegitimate). I assume that these later-legitimated
      children would *not* be labeled illegitimate in their own marriage
      record, but I'd have to double-check a couple instances in my files
      to be sure. And of course, my caveat is that this is what I have
      found in the few villages I myself have searched; I hesitate to
      generalize beyond my own findings, but offer my observations as a
      springboard for others' own musings and research.

      Julie Michutka
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