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Ador

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  • AElfric and Ursula
    Hi everyone, I m new to the list. My name is AElfric, and I have worked with reconstruction of various religious traditions, mostly Germanic stuff,
    Message 1 of 2 , Nov 1, 2003
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      Hi everyone,

      I'm new to the list. My name is AElfric, and I have worked with
      reconstruction of various religious traditions, mostly Germanic stuff,
      specifically Anglo-Saxon and Gothic. I've written a fair amount in those
      languages and have released CDs of A-S and Gothic music set to the Germanic
      lyre, as well as some song and ritual books.

      I am interested in learning more about Indo-European myth ritual and
      language, and am trying to read all I can right now. I am very impressed
      with what I have seen of Ceisiwr Serith's reconstructions of Indo-European
      gods, rituals and ritual formulas.

      Ceisiwr, I do have a number of questions I would like to ask you, but I will
      start out with one: what is the evidence that the Indo-Europeans used Ador
      for purification of sacred spaces? I know that the Romans used a sacred
      flour and salt mixture called mola, and that the Indians similarly used a
      mixture including salt for the same purpose, but what is the evidence that
      salt was specifically mixed with barley to form Ador? AElfric
    • CeiSerith@aol.com
      In a message dated 11/1/2003 2:47:39 PM Eastern Standard Time, ... I hope I haven t miswritten, and I will have to check, but I didn t mean to say that it was
      Message 2 of 2 , Nov 3, 2003
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        In a message dated 11/1/2003 2:47:39 PM Eastern Standard Time,
        amali@... writes:

        > Ceisiwr, I do have a number of questions I would like to ask you, but I
        > will
        > start out with one: what is the evidence that the Indo-Europeans used Ador
        > for purification of sacred spaces?

        I hope I haven't miswritten, and I will have to check, but I didn't mean
        to say that it was used to purify sacred space, but rather that it was used to
        "anoint" sacificial animals before killing them.

        I know that the Romans used a sacred
        > flour and salt mixture called mola, and that the Indians similarly used a
        > mixture including salt for the same purpose, but what is the evidence that
        > salt was specifically mixed with barley to form Ador?

        My belief in the existence of ador comes from a variety of sources, many
        given in articles by Calvert Watkins.
        There are first two of his articles published in Harvard Studies in
        Classical Philology, "An Indo-European Agricultural Term: Latin Ador, Hittite Hat-,
        vol. 77 (1973), pp. 187 - 193, and "Latin ador, Hittite hat- again: Addenda
        to HCSP 77 (1973) 187 - 193." vol. 79 (1975), pp. 181 - 187. In these he
        shows linguistic parallels between the Latin ador, an archaic word for "spelt,"
        as used in ritual, and the Hittite ha:tan, of the same meaning, which he traces
        from a PIE *H2ed- "dry," giving a collective *H2ed-o:r/H2ed-en "dry stuff,"
        which, if the effects of the laryngeals is carried out, become *ado:r/ad-en.
        (I hadn't noticed the value of the "o" before, and will have to change my
        material accordingly.)
        This ador is toasted and ground spelt mixed with salt. Note that the
        words mean "spelt" in both languages, but I have speculated on barley instead.
        I've done this for a number of reasons:
        1. Barley is the grain most often used in the mixture that was the
        Indo-European sacred drink(s). Another, justifiably famous, article by Watkins, "Let
        us now Praise Famous Grains," Proceedings of the American Philosophical Society
        122:1 (Feb., 1978), pp. 9 - 17, collects the primary evidence. The idea of a
        sacred drink which is a mixture composed of water, barley, and water, and
        sometimes other things, is found in Greece, Iran, and India. We always have to
        be careful about identifying something as PIE when it is found in these three,
        since there are number of isoglosses, both linguistic and cultural, in them,
        but I think it worth noting nonetheless.
        2. The Encyclopedia of Indo-European Culture, p. 7 (entry written by Mallory
        and Adams), has this to say:

        Perhaps the most specific of the solidly reconstructed terms is *ye/wos
        "graim (particularly barley)." [I have used / to indicate that the preceding
        vowel is accented.] Barley belongs to the oldest known of the domestic cereals,
        recorded in the Near East and Anatolia from at least the ninth millennium BC
        and it appears in Europe by the eighth or seventh millennium. The term
        *meig^(h)- also seems to indicate "barley" in the Baltic languages although in the
        language of its only Asian cognate, Khotanese, a derivative means "field" <
        *barley-field?". There ae other terms for "barley" (*g^hre/sdh(i), *H2e/lbhit,
        *bhars) but these are all restricted to European stocks. ... Conspicuous by its
        absence is a certain term for the most prized of the cereals, wheat, which as
        *puHxro/s is attested only in Balto-Slavic and Greek and *sepit is known only
        in Anatolian.

        They do also comment that "There is no agricultural regime known in any of
        the relevant parts of Eurasia in which barley might have been known to the
        exclusion of wheat," but only seems to me to reinforce the status of barley as
        special.
        3. *ie/wos "barley" is essentially identical to *ye/w(o)s "law, particularly
        ritual law." While I am exceedingly unqualified to suggest that these two
        words are etymologically related, I find it hard to believe that the PIEs
        wouldn't have seen the similarity, and that either it does reflect in the forms of
        the two words an actual linguistic connection, or that either they would have
        seen the homophony as significant, or that the two word grew together as a
        result of a view that barley was a "canonical" grain.

        Because of all this, I have to suggest that the Roman and Hittite use of
        spelt rather than barley was an innovation, perhaps based on its use by the
        pre-IE inhabitants of Italy and Anatolia. Aware, however, that substrates are
        all too easily used to explain things which we simply don't understand, or
        sometimes don't want to be true, I wouldn't want to be dogmatic about this and
        insist that *ador would have to have been made of barley, and that there is no
        chance that it could have been made of spelt. Still, I had to pick one grain, so
        I went with barley.
        You have to understand that the unpublished book on PIE religion that this
        is taken from (and if anyone knows of a publisher that would be interested in
        it please let me know) is already 400 pages long, and to explain everything
        in it in this detail could easily put it over 1000. (Someone has suggested
        that I do a "director's cut" which did include it all.) In the material on my
        website, then, much is presented simply as true, or I only give a few examples,
        simply to save space and time. But I would love to explain anything; if
        nothing else, it makes me do the research again to see whether I still think I'm
        right.
        I'm intrigued by your work on Germanic music. Do you know if anyone has
        attempted to reconstruct any kind of proto-music from any of the IE cultures?
        My guess would be that it would be impossible, given the ease with which music
        crosses cultural boundaries, but it would interesting if someone did. I
        myself have noted a striking similarity between the oldest Scottish music,
        Gregorian chants, and the tunes to which the Vedic hymns are chanted, but that's
        simply an observation by an amateur.

        Ceisiwr Serith




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