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Re: [N_O_A] Fw: Odoms, et.al,

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  • Nita bobo
    I think anyone would just be happy to find their odom/odum/odam family line regardless. My line is lost to history. There is no family line I can connect my
    Message 1 of 4 , Feb 21, 2010
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      I think anyone would just be happy to find their odom/odum/odam family line regardless. My line is lost to history. There is no family line I can connect my Ferdinand Odom to and he was real as anyone who passed away yesterday, cuz I am here and all my relatives who sprang from him coming to Fayette co., Al in 1840/1850.

      --- On Sun, 2/21/10, Fred Odom <fred.odom@...> wrote:

      From: Fred Odom <fred.odom@...>
      Subject: Re: [N_O_A] Fw: Odoms, et.al,
      To: N_O_A@yahoogroups.com
      Cc: "Fred Odom" <fred.odom@...>
      Date: Sunday, February 21, 2010, 7:42 AM

       
      No, I don't wish to address it.  She obviously has done some research.  
      Iif your ancestors are illiterate, they accept the spelling of the name as it is spelled by those who can read and write.  There are dozens of examples of such alternate spellings being used for the same family.  I think we have, in our line, one of the best examples:  the census taker went to three Odom's, father and two sons, all living next door to each other...and came away with three different spellings.  And, there are dozens of examples where the same guy has different spellings over the years, he signed with an "X" and the name was written the way the writer spelled it.  

      The answer to the question, then, is that the jump is made when the named person became literate...and from that point, spelled the name consistently as he believed it to be spelled.

      The best example of  documented  change is in your GLENN heritage.  In this case, the family was generally literate, and they came from Scotland bearing the spelling GLEN.  It was not until the family of Thomas GLENN (1773-1847) that the second "N" appeared and it stuck with the line from that point on.  Before that,  the single "n" was accepted although there was an occasional deviation, such as GLYN.    However,  there is no doubt that the family was literate at least beginning with Thomas, and they were all GLENNs.  


      On Feb 21, 2010, at 6:49 AM, Bill Odom wrote:



    • Rodney Rhoads
      Re the Odom name- the 17th century was fast and loose with spelling as many people had no education and there were no hard and fast rules or dictionaries to
      Message 2 of 4 , Feb 22, 2010
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        Re the Odom name- the 17th century was fast and loose with spelling as many people had no education and there were no hard and fast rules or dictionaries to define how a word was spelled. When settlers were censused and or recorded at the court house for whatever reason, the clerk wrote down what he thought the name sounded like and the settler put his X on the paperwork. Where the settler was middle class and educated he signed the name and that's what we have to go by now. The first Odom in America signed his name Odeon. William Odeon. The land records and tax/census records show-for the same person-Odium,Oden,Odam,Odom,Odum. This was in 1650. My Odoms went by Odom in the 18th century in NC but when they got to what would become the state of TN after 1796, they changed the spelling to Odum. My ancestor William Odum became on the record-Willee Odum, and Wiley Odum. I think he was really William Odum/Odom but there you are. I still think my family was closer to Oden or Odion or Odean originally but who really knows. Oldham is pronounced the same as Odom by most people. It is difficult and then complicated by the fact that there seem to be some very different genetic groups with this surname per the DNA results.
        Rod Rhoads


        From: Fred Odom <fred.odom@...>
        To: N_O_A@yahoogroups.com
        Cc: Fred Odom <fred.odom@...>
        Sent: Sun, February 21, 2010 8:42:58 AM
        Subject: Re: [N_O_A] Fw: Odoms, et.al,

         

        No, I don't wish to address it.  She obviously has done some research.  

        Iif your ancestors are illiterate, they accept the spelling of the name as it is spelled by those who can read and write.  There are dozens of examples of such alternate spellings being used for the same family.  I think we have, in our line, one of the best examples:  the census taker went to three Odom's, father and two sons, all living next door to each other...and came away with three different spellings.  And, there are dozens of examples where the same guy has different spellings over the years, he signed with an "X" and the name was written the way the writer spelled it.  

        The answer to the question, then, is that the jump is made when the named person became literate...and from that point, spelled the name consistently as he believed it to be spelled.

        The best example of  documented  change is in your GLENN heritage.  In this case, the family was generally literate, and they came from Scotland bearing the spelling GLEN.  It was not until the family of Thomas GLENN (1773-1847) that the second "N" appeared and it stuck with the line from that point on.  Before that,  the single "n" was accepted although there was an occasional deviation, such as GLYN.    However,  there is no doubt that the family was literate at least beginning with Thomas, and they were all GLENNs.  


        On Feb 21, 2010, at 6:49 AM, Bill Odom wrote:


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