Loading ...
Sorry, an error occurred while loading the content.

196Re: [N_O_A] Fw: Odoms, et.al,

Expand Messages
  • Fred Odom
    Feb 21, 2010
      No, I don't wish to address it.  She obviously has done some research.  
      Iif your ancestors are illiterate, they accept the spelling of the name as it is spelled by those who can read and write.  There are dozens of examples of such alternate spellings being used for the same family.  I think we have, in our line, one of the best examples:  the census taker went to three Odom's, father and two sons, all living next door to each other...and came away with three different spellings.  And, there are dozens of examples where the same guy has different spellings over the years, he signed with an "X" and the name was written the way the writer spelled it.  

      The answer to the question, then, is that the jump is made when the named person became literate...and from that point, spelled the name consistently as he believed it to be spelled.

      The best example of  documented  change is in your GLENN heritage.  In this case, the family was generally literate, and they came from Scotland bearing the spelling GLEN.  It was not until the family of Thomas GLENN (1773-1847) that the second "N" appeared and it stuck with the line from that point on.  Before that,  the single "n" was accepted although there was an occasional deviation, such as GLYN.    However,  there is no doubt that the family was literate at least beginning with Thomas, and they were all GLENNs.  

      On Feb 21, 2010, at 6:49 AM, Bill Odom wrote:

    • Show all 4 messages in this topic