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Re: Translation Request/Nisi Quod with Subjunctive?

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  • Peter
    I was wondering about the word virtus. It can mean might, strength or power as well as moral excellence. Could one use the phrase praeditus virtute to
    Message 1 of 85 , Oct 3, 2007
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      I was wondering about the word virtus. It can mean might, strength or
      power as well as moral excellence. Could one use the phrase
      "praeditus virtute" to describe a despot in

      "Imperator praeditus virtute est quoad praetoriani eum sinunt."

      I found the strength or power definition unusual because it is not
      conveyed in the English "virtue".

      Have you ever encountered the verb capere being used to introduce
      indirect speech or indirect questions? Since the verb can mean "to
      understand" it theoretically can be used as a synonym of intellegere.

      Finally I was wondering if Latin has any construction similar to
      "Before going out" in the sentence:

      "I had eaten breakfast before leaving for work this morning"

      In English we seem to prefer this to:

      "I had eaten breakfast before I left for work this morning" when the
      same subject is in both clauses.

      Can ante and post be used with the gerund in "um"? I have only seen
      ad with the gerund in "um".I have never seen "ante exeundum".

      Peter
    • chjones60056
      ... I don t think it s grammatically incorrect, but in my experience the dative of the gerund is more common in prose with adjectives and nouns (and it s far
      Message 85 of 85 , Dec 18, 2007
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        --- In LatinChat-L@yahoogroups.com, "Peter" <pkoden69@...> wrote:
        > Finally, I was read about the dative of the gerund can be used with
        > adjectives such as idoeneus. Can tha ad + gerund constuction be used
        > with an noun or adjective.
        >
        > In John 6: 52 of the Vulgate the ad constuction is used with the noun
        >
        > "litigabant ergo Iudaei ad invicem dicentes quomodo potest hic nobis
        > carnem suam dare ad manducandum"
        >
        > Can one say:
        >
        > "Aqua (or lympha) ex hoc flumine (or fluvio) non est idonea ad
        > bibiendum." instead of "...idonea bibiendo" ?

        I don't think it's grammatically incorrect, but in my experience the
        dative of the gerund is more common in prose with adjectives and nouns
        (and it's far more common in poetry than in prose). _Ad_ with
        gerund (or gerundive construction) is typically a direct substitute for
        a final clause.
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