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Re: How do we know that 'I Am' at Ex. 3:14 in KJV is incorrect?

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  • a_measured_brush
    Using the line of argument that trinitarians use prthaps the Blind man of John chapter 9 was Jehovah. He literally said I am , yet there is not a single
    Message 1 of 7 , May 11, 2008


      Using the line of argument that trinitarians use prthaps the Blind man of John chapter 9 was Jehovah. He literally said "I am", yet there is not a single version of the Bible that renders it simply as "I am", or puts it in all capitol letters.

      (John

      9:9) 9 Some would say: "This is he." Others would say: "Not at all, but he is like him." The man would say: "I am [he]."

      It is very inconsistent, or at least it seems to me to be so, that in the span of a dozen verses the same words in Greek are rendered so differently. There are no capitol letters in the original Greek, and since Jesus is talking about the length, or age of his existance, it would be more consistant to render John 8:58 as "I have been.'

    • moto_bl
      What great observations by our members! Yes, even if the words I am were supposed to be God s name, it would make no sense for Jesus to say the equivalent
      Message 2 of 7 , May 12, 2008
        What great observations by our members!
         
        Yes, even if the words "I am" were supposed to be God's name, it would make no sense for Jesus to say the equivalent of, "Most assuredly I say to you, before Abraham was...Jehovah," in John 8:58.
         
        The context shows that the correct phrasing of this sentence should be something like "I was" instead of "I am" when used after the word "before." Also in verse 57, the question to which Jesus was replying had to do with the length of his existence...not his identity. 
         
        Several translations phrase John 8:58 the correct way by which Jesus was actually describing how long he has been in existence. Such as the NLT:

        "Jesus answered, "The truth is, I existed before Abraham was even born!" (NLT)

         

        --- In JWquestions-and_answers@yahoogroups.com, Steve Klemetti <sklemetti@...> wrote:
        >
        > Because "I am" is not a name or designation.
        >
        >
        > teddy_trueblood wrote:
        > >
        > >
        > > Many English Bibles, including the KJV, render 'ehyeh' at Exodus 3:14 as
        > > "I am" or even "I AM." This was apparently done so that another verse
        > > (John 8:58) would 'prove' that Jesus is Jehovah God!
        > >
        > > So how do we know that most Bible translations are incorrectly
        > > translating 'ehyeh' at Ex. 3:14?
        > >
        > >
        >

      • Steve Klemetti
        I am is a personal pronoun + linking verb. Not a name. And John 8:58 was in the past tense.
        Message 3 of 7 , May 14, 2008
          "I am" is a personal pronoun + linking verb. Not a name.

          And John 8:58 was in the past tense.

          moto_bl wrote:
          > What great observations by our members!
          >
          > Yes, even *if* the words "I am" were supposed to be God's name, it
          > would make no sense for Jesus to say the equivalent of, "Most
          > assuredly I say to you, before Abraham was...Jehovah," in John 8:58.
          >
          > The context shows that the correct phrasing of this sentence should be
          > something like "I was" instead of "I am" when used after the word
          > "before." Also in verse 57, the question to which Jesus was replying
          > had to do with the length of his existence...*not* his identity.
          >
          > Several translations phrase John 8:58 the correct way by which Jesus
          > was actually describing how long he has been in existence. Such as the
          > NLT: *//*
          >
          > */"/*Jesus answered, "The truth is, I existed before Abraham was even
          > born!" (NLT)
          >
          >
          >
          > --- In JWquestions-and_answers@yahoogroups.com, Steve Klemetti
          > <sklemetti@...> wrote:
          > >
          > > Because "I am" is not a name or designation.
          > >
          > >
          > > teddy_trueblood wrote:
          > > >
          > > >
          > > > Many English Bibles, including the KJV, render 'ehyeh' at Exodus
          > 3:14 as
          > > > "I am" or even "I AM." This was apparently done so that another verse
          > > > (John 8:58) would 'prove' that Jesus is Jehovah God!
          > > >
          > > > So how do we know that most Bible translations are incorrectly
          > > > translating 'ehyeh' at Ex. 3:14?
          > > >
          > > >
          > >
          >
          >
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