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Re: About Revelation 1:10

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  • moto_bl
    Hello John, AnotherPaul addressed the technical part of your question. Also, there is an article in The Watchtower 4/15/91 that provides some excellent
    Message 1 of 5 , Apr 20, 2008

      Hello John,

      AnotherPaul addressed the technical part of your question.

      Also, there is an article in The Watchtower 4/15/91 that provides some excellent references and scriptural context concerning Revelation 1:10 and the translation of the Greek phrase tei´ ky·ri·a·kei´ he·me´rai as "the Lord's day."  I hope that the excerpt below is helpful:

      "What, then, is "the Lord's day"? The context of Revelation 1:10 points to Jesus as the Lord whose day it is. God's Word identifies expressions such as "the day of our Lord Jesus Christ" with a time of judgment for mankind and the restoration of Paradise.—1 Corinthians 1:8; 15:24-26; Philippians 1:6, 10; 2:16.

      "Hence, Hans Bruns, in his translation with commentary, Das Neue Testament (The New Testament), is correct when he says: "Some maintain that he [John] is speaking here of Sunday, but it is far more likely that he is referring to the illustrious Day of the Lord, which is after all what all of his subsequent description pertains to." W. E. Vine says: "`The Day of the Lord' . . . is the Day of His manifested judgment on the world." Fritz Rienecker's Lexikon zur Bibel (Lexicon of the Bible) says that "the Lord's day" clearly refers to "judgment day." -Watchtower 4/15/91

       

      --- In JWquestions-and_answers@yahoogroups.com, Paul Leonard <anotherpaul2001@...> wrote:
      >
      > While I do not claim to be a scholar a little searching of the web helps.
      >
      > The use of the article "the": th/|
      > Is the issue.
      >
      > The sentence says "the Lord's day", indicating the "possessive" in this case.
      >
      > The word is, as noted "kuriake" is an "adjective dative feminine singular no degree"
      >
      > However the structure of the sentence is what is important.
      >
      > I checked the following translations and they all translate it as a possessive.
      >
      > Note the KJV, which most fundamentalists swear by, has it "on the Lord's day"
      >
      > ASV Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
      >
      > BBE Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
      >
      > DBY Revelation 1:10 I became in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
      >
      > DRA Revelation 1:10 I was in the spirit on the Lord's day
      >
      > ESV Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
      >
      > GNV Revelation 1:10 And I was rauished in spirit on the Lordes day,
      >
      > KJV Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
      >
      > MRD Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day;
      >
      > NAB Revelation 1:10 I was caught up in spirit on the Lord's day
      >
      > NAS Revelation 1:10 I was (1a)in the Spirit on (b)the Lord's day,
      >
      > NAU Revelation 1:10 I was (1a)in the Spirit on (b)the Lord's day, a
      >
      > NIB Revelation 1:10 On the Lord's Day
      >
      > NIV Revelation 1:10 On the Lord's Day
      >
      > NJB Revelation 1:10 it was the Lord's Day
      >
      > NKJ Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's Day,
      >
      > NLT Revelation 1:10 It was the Lord's Day,
      >
      > NRS Revelation 1:10 I was in the spirit(1 )on the Lord's day,
      >
      > PNT Revelation 1:10 I was in the spirite on the Lordes day,
      >
      > RSV Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
      >
      > RWB Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
      >
      > WEB Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
      >
      > YLT Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's-day,
      >
      > Hope this helps a little.
      > iul41 iul41@... wrote: Dear friends
      > I have a technical question about Revelatinon 1:10.
      > Well, the "fundamentalists" say, this is an argue to keep the sunday,
      > like a sabbat, becouse the literal translation of "en kiryake hemera"
      > is "in the lordly day".
      > I have a question in connection with this.
      > Some "fundamentalist" sources say that kyriake from Revelation 1:10 is
      > adjective dative singular no degree, but another source say kyriake is
      > adjective posesive.
      > Fundamentalists say that there is not an adjective posesive.
      > What is the truth? Is or not?
      > Pls try to help.
      > Thank's a lot.
      > John
      >

    • takacs ianos
      Thank You again. John ... From: moto_bl To: JWquestions-and_answers@yahoogroups.com Sent: Monday, April 21, 2008 2:58:13 AM Subject:
      Message 2 of 5 , Apr 21, 2008
        Thank You again.
        John

        ----- Original Message ----
        From: moto_bl <no_reply@yahoogroups.com>
        To: JWquestions-and_answers@yahoogroups.com
        Sent: Monday, April 21, 2008 2:58:13 AM
        Subject: [JWquestions-and_answers] Re: About Revelation 1:10

        Hello John,

        AnotherPaul addressed the technical part of your question.

        Also, there is an article in The Watchtower 4/15/91 that provides some excellent references and scriptural context concerning Revelation 1:10 and the translation of the Greek phrase tei´ ky·ri·a·kei´ he·me´rai as "the Lord's day."  I hope that the excerpt below is helpful:

        "What, then, is "the Lord's day"? The context of Revelation 1:10 points to Jesus as the Lord whose day it is. God's Word identifies expressions such as "the day of our Lord Jesus Christ" with a time of judgment for mankind and the restoration of Paradise.—1 Corinthians 1:8; 15:24-26; Philippians 1:6, 10; 2:16.

        "Hence, Hans Bruns, in his translation with commentary, Das Neue Testament (The New Testament), is correct when he says: "Some maintain that he [John] is speaking here of Sunday, but it is far more likely that he is referring to the illustrious Day of the Lord, which is after all what all of his subsequent description pertains to." W. E. Vine says: "`The Day of the Lord' . . . is the Day of His manifested judgment on the world." Fritz Rienecker's Lexikon zur Bibel (Lexicon of the Bible) says that "the Lord's day" clearly refers to "judgment day." -Watchtower 4/15/91

         

        --- In JWquestions- and_answers@ yahoogroups. com, Paul Leonard <anotherpaul2001@ ...> wrote:
        >
        > While I do not claim to be a scholar a little searching of the web helps.
        >
        > The use of the article "the": th/|
        > Is the issue.
        >
        > The sentence says "the Lord's day", indicating the "possessive" in this case.
        >
        > The word is, as noted "kuriake" is an "adjective dative feminine singular no degree"
        >
        > However the structure of the sentence is what is important.
        >
        > I checked the following translations and they all translate it as a possessive.
        >
        > Note the KJV, which most fundamentalists swear by, has it "on the Lord's day"
        >
        > ASV Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
        >
        > BBE Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
        >
        > DBY Revelation 1:10 I became in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
        >
        > DRA Revelation 1:10 I was in the spirit on the Lord's day
        >
        > ESV Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
        >
        > GNV Revelation 1:10 And I was rauished in spirit on the Lordes day,
        >
        > KJV Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
        >
        > MRD Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day;
        >
        > NAB Revelation 1:10 I was caught up in spirit on the Lord's day
        >
        > NAS Revelation 1:10 I was (1a)in the Spirit on (b)the Lord's day,
        >
        > NAU Revelation 1:10 I was (1a)in the Spirit on (b)the Lord's day, a
        >
        > NIB Revelation 1:10 On the Lord's Day
        >
        > NIV Revelation 1:10 On the Lord's Day
        >
        > NJB Revelation 1:10 it was the Lord's Day
        >
        > NKJ Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's Day,
        >
        > NLT Revelation 1:10 It was the Lord's Day,
        >
        > NRS Revelation 1:10 I was in the spirit(1 )on the Lord's day,
        >
        > PNT Revelation 1:10 I was in the spirite on the Lordes day,
        >
        > RSV Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
        >
        > RWB Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
        >
        > WEB Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
        >
        > YLT Revelation 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's-day,
        >
        > Hope this helps a little.
        > iul41 iul41@... wrote: Dear friends
        > I have a technical question about Revelatinon 1:10.
        > Well, the "fundamentalists" say, this is an argue to keep the sunday,
        > like a sabbat, becouse the literal translation of "en kiryake hemera"
        > is "in the lordly day".
        > I have a question in connection with this.
        > Some "fundamentalist" sources say that kyriake from Revelation 1:10 is
        > adjective dative singular no degree, but another source say kyriake is
        > adjective posesive.
        > Fundamentalists say that there is not an adjective posesive.
        > What is the truth? Is or not?
        > Pls try to help.
        > Thank's a lot.
        > John
        >




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