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7806Re: Question about the Tractus

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  • Peter Wilton
    Nov 25, 2013
      "My hunch is that if it is a Beneventan source, they used both Greek and
      Latin if I remember correctly, and that in the Byzantine Rite one of whose
      liturgical languages is Greek, the alleluia has never been suppressed in
      Lent. In fact "days of alleluia" are often the more penitential days."

      Yes, but also interesting that the melody is essentially the Frankish (Northern European) version of one of the few early Roman alleluia melodies.

      There are, of course, other aspects of the familiar Requiem mass which presumably wouldn't have been in place until comparatively late, especially the Dies Irae, which was a prose originally for Advent. The fact that we're used to singing a prose at a service which contains no alleluia is an indication that it wouldn't originally have belonged there. I wonder to what alleluia it would originally have been attached.

      Peter Wilton
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