- If you look back in the archives, you'll see a thread I started a few

months ago titled "Where do all the universes 'live'? How many

dimensions are needed?" with a similar goal in mind. I tried to get at

whether, if you treat each universe as a point in a large-dimensional

space, the universes could be arranged along a single line (perhaps with

a distance metric like the one you're looking for that would make that

line truly a "dimension", or perhaps not) or whether there are

uncountably many, and so they have to be arranged (at least) in a plane.

Some folks, notably Charles Goodwin, believed an infinite number of

dimensions are needed, whether or not there is any meaning assigned to

those dimensions. I still believe (intuitively, I can't quite support

it yet) that only one extra dimension is needed.

-- Gary

jzellis wrote:> Hello,

>

> This is my first post to this list, so forgive me if this is

> something which has been discussed before. Also, forgive me if I

> appear remarkably stupid; I am a columnist and freelance writer, and

> my knowledge of quantum physics is certainly not at a postgraduate

> level.

>

> The idea of multiple universes fascinates me, but there is something

> I'm curious about, and I hope someone here can enlighten me.

>

> Assuming that there are an infinite number of universes co-existing

> within the framework of a multiverse...in what way do you

> quantitatively describe the difference between one universe and

> another?

>

> Perhaps a better way of putting it: I am sitting in my chair. My

> computer is two feet away from me. My dog is running around about

> fifteen feet away from me. The event of Federico Garcia Lorca

> writing "Lament For Ignacio Sanchez Mejias", to pick a random

> example, is sixty years and several thousand miles away from me

> (since Lorca wrote the poem in Spain and I am in Las Vegas, Nevada,

> USA). These things all lie at different places along measurable axes

> of dimension: space and time.

>

> Yet, the way I understand the multiverse theory, all of these

> universes exist simultaneously. And yet, it seems fairly obvious to

> me that there must be *some* sort of axis of difference; it would be

> fairly obvious if this were not the case. So my question is: how

> would you measure this difference? One would assume that you'd have

> to have a way of describing the difference between Universe A and

> Universe Z; or am I missing the whole point?

>

> One idea I had (based on childhood musings) was that these universes

> sort of lie on an infinite number of multiple timelines. So would

> this axis of difference be, essentially, another dimension of time:

> not a forwards/backwards measurement, but something more akin to a

> measurement of probability? Does that make sense to anyone else? :-)

>

> This has been bothering me since I read Deutsch's book. I'm hoping

> someone has an answer for me, as I can't seem to come up with one on

> my own! - Aki Tasa <jskogste@...> wrote on 03/05/02 5:54 PM:

> Let's say we want to know the distance between universe A and universe B.

Here at this point I was thinking about ordinary distance in ordinary space. That's

>

> First thing to do is to produce a table that has every particle's distance from every

> particle in universe A.

because I got confused.

So let's forget that and say distance between two universes is the sum of the

numbers in the string of numbers that is the difference of the two strings of

numbers describing the universes, aligned as well as possible.

What if there are two different ways to align the universes, is the result an

interference effect or a "non-local entanglement" effect?

Aki