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Re: [Czechlist] byt v osobnim vlastnictvi x druzstevní

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  • Valerie Talacko
    That s how it originated, and there are a few places in London still owned by e.g. the Duke of Westminster. However,the owner of the freehold on a flat is
    Message 1 of 19 , Jul 27, 2011
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      That's how it originated, and there are a few places in London still
      owned by e.g. the Duke of Westminster. However,the owner of the freehold
      on a flat is usually a company, or sometimes just an individual who who
      owned the house before it was divided into flats, or who wanted to
      invest in the freehold. Or it can be the local council.

      If two-thirds of leaseholders in a building want to buy the freehold and
      own it between them, they have the right to buy it from the freeholder.

      When it comes to houses, the buyers pretty much always own the freehold.
      The only reason leasehold/freehold ownership persists (because it's far
      from ideal and bad freeholders can cause endless problems) is as an
      answer to the question of how people own flats and the ground
      underneath. The US has condos, and Australia and some other countries
      have strata titling - the UK introduced something called commonhold
      which was supposed to work like that, only it never took off and was so
      rare that people steered clear of flats held in that way.

      Valerie


      On Wed, 2011-07-27 at 08:43 +0200, Stephan von Pohl wrote:
      >
      > Just to second what others have already said. As an American, I have
      > never heard the term "freehold." I assume it has to do with the fact,
      > that in Britain a many people get 90-year leases, but that a lot of
      > property is actually owned by the nobility (or something like that -
      > correct me if I'm wrong).
      >
      > On 7/26/2011 5:12 PM, Prekladatelsky servis wrote:
      > >
      > >
      > > As for osobni vlastnictvi, the term freehold seems to crop up quite
      > a lot.
      > >
      > > DO YOU THINK THAT „TO BUY A FREEHOLD APARTMENT“ WOULD WORK?
      > >
      > > Iveta
      > >
      > > [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
      > >
      > >
      >
      >
      >
      >
    • Melvyn
      ... I think your objection is justified in theory, but I find that in practice freehold is quite often used loosely for osobni vlastnictvi, e.g.
      Message 2 of 19 , Jul 30, 2011
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        --- In Czechlist@yahoogroups.com, Valerie Talacko <valerie@...> wrote:
        >
        > I definitely wouldn't use freehold - it specifically means "as opposed to leasehold," and is very much related to certain common law
        > jurisdictions.

        I think your objection is justified in theory, but I find that in practice "freehold" is quite often used loosely for osobni vlastnictvi, e.g.

        http://www.holidaylettings.co.uk/travel-resources/industry-news/property-investment-news/foreigners-to-be-allowed-to-buy-freehold-in-the-czech-republic/a-3-55-1446/

        It also crops up in teaching material here (though I would warn students about the issues involved):

        http://anglictina-maturita.studentske.cz/2010/10/housing-bydleni-slovicka.html

        and I asked Ben Anderson* (an English chap who set up an estate agency in Prague many moons ago - nowadays he is on his local council and regularly uses Czech in specialist situations of this kind) about usage in the field here. He writes:

        "we usually used the term freehold to describe osobni vlastnictvi".

        So I would take that into account in contexts where absolute accuracy is not required.

        BR

        M.
        * http://pages.citebite.com/l9u2p1g1vfbi
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