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514Re: Perfect Match after 10 generation

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  • Dave Howard
    Mar 13, 2009
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      First of all congratulations for finding a documented match. As far as I
      know you are the first one to do this even though we have three people
      who are perfect matches at 67 markers and they cannot connect using

      There is a lot of scientific information relating to the mutation rates
      of the 37 markers you had tested. Apparently each marker has a slightly
      different rate and Family Tree DNA takes that into consideration when
      they compute the probability of how closely you are related to another

      In fact, the faster moving markers are noted in RED in the spreadsheets
      that show up for our group. Family Tree DNA has put up the many of the
      research papers that discuss these mutation rates.

      I am guessing that an 8th cousin twice removed that one of you was about
      9 generations from the common ancestor and the other was 11 generations
      from the common ancestor. So 10 generations sounds right.

      I took a look and Family Tree DNA had predicted that you and your exact
      37 marker match had a common ancestor within 10 generations to be 98.89%

      When did your common ancestor live? Where did he live?

      I need to ask one of the scientists but I believe when we asked the
      question as to when the M378 SNP came about was about 20,000 years ago.
      This would have been shortly after the M242 that made us Qs in the first

      However, that is not when the M378 SNP came into our Ashkenazi Jewish
      group. We all seem to have one common ancestor about 900 years ago. We
      are working on some charts that show this.

      Thanks for sharing your success story.

      Dave Howard

      --- In Ashkenazi-Q@yahoogroups.com, "Chris" <cdbaysinger@...> wrote:
      > I have a question...I got a Perfected Match on the 37 Marker test from
      > a Documented 8th cousin twice removed on FTDNA.com, what are the
      > mutation rates, When did Q1a and Q1b split from Q1* and when did Q1*
      > split from Q* or Q? Any speculations would be interesting.
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