Re: [ANE-2] Re: Pharaoh and Pithom
- -----Original Message-----
>From: Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir@...>While I prefer to leave it to others to comment on dating issues, I'd like to point out that there is also the issue of the status absolutus versus the status constructus. "Pharaoh" ("great house") is an example of status absolutus, while "Pithom" ("house of Atum") entails the status constructus.
>Sent: Jan 3, 2008 7:04 AM
>Subject: [ANE-2] Re: Pharaoh and Pithom
>On Dec 31, 2007 12:26 AM, Yitzhak Sapir wrote:
>> Hello everyone,
>> Kenneth Kitchen establishes a linguistic correspondence between
>> Pithom and p(r)-(i)tm, "House/Temple of Atum." He suggests that
>> Egyptian shows various evidence that pr had been pronounced pi:.
>> Thus, "on the Egyptian side, phonetic spellings have long been
>> known, showing clearly that written pr was in fact pronounced pi
>> (py); and conversely pr (phonetic pi) was sometimes wrongly
>> written down to express the definite article pa, pi." He also cites
>> a reference from Ezekiel (Pi-Beset) and Assyrian pi-$apt. Now,
>> I would greatly appreciate any help on the following questions:
>> 1) Isn't Hebrew Pharaoh a borrowing of an Egyptian word composed
>> of the same pr "House"?
>> 2) Would it then be reasonable to see the development of pr > pi:
>> within Late Egyptian, whereby in earlier periods of Late Egyptian,
>> pr was pronounced [pr], while in later times the r became i: giving
>> [pi:]? Pharaoh was borrowed into Hebrew earlier (for example,
>> while Egypt dominated Canaan) where Pithom was borrowed later
>> (from the city Pithom, established in the 7th century BCE, perhaps)?
>> 3) Did this sound change take place in the word Pharaoh after pr
>> was pronounced [pi:]?
>> 4) What is the earliest time for which we see this pr/pi: confusion
>> that he mentions above?
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