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14733Re: SV: [ANE-2] Re: "his seed is not"

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  • Yechiel Lehavy
    Feb 27, 2013
      It is to justify the toponym Palestine in an earlier time in the Holy Land.  The Roman called it Palestine based on the Philistine people.

      Yechiel M. Lehavy
      Professor Anthropology/Sociology, Retired
      Atlantic Cape Community College

      From: aren <maeira@...>
      To: ANE-2@yahoogroups.com
      Sent: Wednesday, February 27, 2013 1:07 PM
      Subject: SV: [ANE-2] Re: "his seed is not"

      Re-read the article and still see no reason why Israel should be equated with Philistia.
      Not to mention, you base some of your arguments on the biblical usage of the "Israel" as a geographical term. But if, according to what you have written elsewhere, the biblical texts are mostly Hellenistic - how can this in any way be used to explain the usage of a term in the late 13th cent. BCE?
      Do note that Hasel (among others) has critically discussed many of your suggested IDs of the toponym "Israel" in the stele (see, e.g., Hasel in "Critical Issues in Early Israelite History" (Winona Lake 2008).

      Aren Maeir
      A Philistine from Philistia

      --- In ANE-2@yahoogroups.com, "Thomas L. Thompson" wrote:
      > Dear Aren,
      > Please read the article!
      > Thomas
      > Thomas L. Thompson
      > Professor emeritus, University of Copenhagen
      > ________________________________________
      > Fra: ANE-2@yahoogroups.com [ANE-2@yahoogroups.com] På vegne af aren [maeira@...]
      > Sendt: 26. februar 2013 22:41
      > Til: ANE-2@yahoogroups.com
      > Emne: [ANE-2] Re: "his seed is not"
      > How in the world can "Israel" in the Merneptah stele be equated with the region of Philistia? That is based on an sort of evidence and not pure speculation...
      > Aren Maeir
      > A Philistine

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