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11859SV: SV: [ANE-2] 7th century Judaism or YHWHism

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  • Niels Peter Lemche
    Dec 30, 2009
      It is all based on the Old Testament. Noth has a long introductory chapter on the names of the tribes of Israel. He -- like de Vaux -- reckons Judah to have been originally a place name. And because of his authority, it has been generally accepted, although no longer discussed.

      Niels Peter Lemche

      -----Oprindelig meddelelse-----
      Fra: ANE-2@yahoogroups.com [mailto:ANE-2@yahoogroups.com] På vegne af William D. Tallman
      Sendt: den 31 december 2009 08:06
      Til: ANE-2@yahoogroups.com
      Emne: Re: SV: [ANE-2] 7th century Judaism or YHWHism

      On Wed, Dec 30, 2009 at 02:42:37PM +0100, Niels Peter Lemche wrote:
      > It is an anachronism, before the Hellenistic Age. It is a left-over
      > from the days when the biblical history of Israel's past as the twelve
      > tribes migrating the desert, storming the land of Canaan, and settling
      > there as a nation of twelve tribes was still au courant.
      > When Sennacherib refers to Hezekiah, it is a the "Judean", often
      > translated the "Jew", but hardly meaning more than "the man from (the
      > landscape/state) of Judah.
      > Niels Peter Lemche

      In D.B. Redford: "Egypt, Canaan, and Israel in Ancient Times", Princeton
      University Press, 1992, p 295, is this sentence:

      "Kenites, Yerahmeelites, Calebites, Othnielites, and others constituted
      the population of the rugged country called _Har Yehuda_, "the mountain
      (district) of the gorge(s)."

      The citations are M. Noth, _The History of Israel_ (London, 1959),
      56-58; E. Lipinsky _VT 23_ (1973), 380-381; R. de Vaux, _The Early
      History of Israel_ (Philadelphia, 1978), 547.

      I don't have these citations available to check, so I can only suppose
      that they make the same assertion. Anyone clarify this for me?

      The term _Har Yehuda_ is apparently a proper noun. _Har_ is (loosely?)
      translated as "mountain" or "mountain range/region/district(?)"; is
      _Yehuda_ then the Hebrew(?) word for "gorge(s)"? If not, then is there
      an etymological connection?

      If so, then the _Yehuda(i?)_ could be construed as "(the people from)
      the gorges", one might suppose. I'm well aware that there is a hugely
      powerful tacit assumption that the proper noun is a "Biblical term", and
      therefore is exempt from legitimate question. That said, might there be
      some support for this conjecture?

      Thanks for reading.

      William D. Tallman
      343 Fleming Drive
      Sequim, WA 98382
      (360) 681-0247


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