11859SV: SV: [ANE-2] 7th century Judaism or YHWHism
- Dec 30, 2009It is all based on the Old Testament. Noth has a long introductory chapter on the names of the tribes of Israel. He -- like de Vaux -- reckons Judah to have been originally a place name. And because of his authority, it has been generally accepted, although no longer discussed.
Niels Peter Lemche
Fra: ANEemail@example.com [mailto:ANEfirstname.lastname@example.org] På vegne af William D. Tallman
Sendt: den 31 december 2009 08:06
Emne: Re: SV: [ANE-2] 7th century Judaism or YHWHism
On Wed, Dec 30, 2009 at 02:42:37PM +0100, Niels Peter Lemche wrote:
> It is an anachronism, before the Hellenistic Age. It is a left-over
> from the days when the biblical history of Israel's past as the twelve
> tribes migrating the desert, storming the land of Canaan, and settling
> there as a nation of twelve tribes was still au courant.
> When Sennacherib refers to Hezekiah, it is a the "Judean", often
> translated the "Jew", but hardly meaning more than "the man from (the
> landscape/state) of Judah.
> Niels Peter Lemche
In D.B. Redford: "Egypt, Canaan, and Israel in Ancient Times", Princeton
University Press, 1992, p 295, is this sentence:
"Kenites, Yerahmeelites, Calebites, Othnielites, and others constituted
the population of the rugged country called _Har Yehuda_, "the mountain
(district) of the gorge(s)."
The citations are M. Noth, _The History of Israel_ (London, 1959),
56-58; E. Lipinsky _VT 23_ (1973), 380-381; R. de Vaux, _The Early
History of Israel_ (Philadelphia, 1978), 547.
I don't have these citations available to check, so I can only suppose
that they make the same assertion. Anyone clarify this for me?
The term _Har Yehuda_ is apparently a proper noun. _Har_ is (loosely?)
translated as "mountain" or "mountain range/region/district(?)"; is
_Yehuda_ then the Hebrew(?) word for "gorge(s)"? If not, then is there
an etymological connection?
If so, then the _Yehuda(i?)_ could be construed as "(the people from)
the gorges", one might suppose. I'm well aware that there is a hugely
powerful tacit assumption that the proper noun is a "Biblical term", and
therefore is exempt from legitimate question. That said, might there be
some support for this conjecture?
Thanks for reading.
William D. Tallman
343 Fleming Drive
Sequim, WA 98382
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