Ok Jim, but there is another question which arises as
a matter of legislative construction. I will reply
within your text:
--- jm367 <jm367@...
> Excises have been imposed on the exercise of natural
> rights. see
> footnotes to Davis v. Steward Machinery case.
[This is true enough wherein there has been an act of
Congress limiting it's authority within the "district"
certain activities.(i.e. the placing of a license to
operate a particluar profession.) Remember that the
federal Congress has a limited jurisdictional
authority so do not place it's authority outside of
it's expressed limitations.]
> occupation taxation.
But the supreme court in
> dicta stated natural
> rights could be taxed like any other.
[This is why the issues of the 16th Amendment is a
moot point, and now for the benefit of new people to
the forum, considered as frivilous as it doesn't
matter. First off, the Amendment didn't change or
alter the Constitution in anyway, which is why the
Supreme's stated that it offered "no new taxing
authority other than what Congress already had".
Second. in my estimation is the largest question which
I haven't seen vocalized. That is: have they?
According to the 16th, Congress has a "right" to tax
income from whatever source derived....right, but the
question is have they taxed income from whatever
source derived? The absolute answer is no they
haven't. Where taxing authority is concerned we know
as a matter of prior court rulings, it must be done
with clear and unequivocal language, and to date
it(the taxing authority which reaches to most
American's in their private capacity) is mysteriously
missing from the public record. Except for those
activities, for which a tax has been placed, and they
appear in clear language within Title 26 U.S.C.A.and
supported (enforced) within the regulations which
accompny it. Most of the tim eit is the
mis-application of law which gets us all into
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