Even if there is a so called dollar sign on anything such sign has no meaning in law. Professor Florian Cajori dealt with the $ sign question ratherMessage 1 of 5 , Sep 11View Source
RE: [tips_and_tricks] Re: Posting two documents.
Even if there is a so called "dollar sign" on anything such sign has no meaning in law. Professor Florian Cajori dealt with the $ sign question rather definitively more than 60 years ago in A History of Mathematical Notations and he could get quite indignant on the subject. He noted in his book, "About a dozen different theories [on the $ sign's origin] have been advanced by men of imaginative minds, but not one of these would-be historians permitted himself to be hampered by the underlying facts." Among the deficient hypotheses:
(1) The $ sign was originally the letters U and S superimposed. The idea here is that the original $ sign had two vertical lines, not one. Popular though this idea is, there is zero documentary evidence for it. Furthermore, Robert Morris, the Revolutionary War financier and the first U.S. official to use the sign, made it with a single vertical stroke.
(2) It's a version of the letters IHS, the Greek abbreviation of the name J--us. No further comment required.
(3) It was originally a P combined with an 8. The dollar, you'll recall, is descended from the Spanish Mill Dollar, also known as the "piece of eight" because it consisted of eight reals. Plausible, and as we shall see not that far from the truth, but still wrong.
(4) The $ sign was inspired by the Spanish "pillar dollar," which on one side had two columns signifying the "pillars of Hercules" at Gibraltar. These were represented in the dollar sign by the two vertical lines, with the S being some sort of scroll wrapped around them.
In reality, Professor Cajori contends in his book, the $ sign is an abbreviation for "pesos." Bear in mind that the Spanish dollar, also known as the peso de 8 reales, was the principal coin in circulation in the U.S. up until 1794, when we began minting our own money. In handwriting, "pesos" was usually abbreviated lowercase "ps," with S above and to the right of the P and with the hook on the latter written with one or two deep strokes. As time went on, the P and the S tended to get mashed together and the result was $. The dollar sign and the PS abbreviation were used interchangeably from around 1775 until the end of the century, after which the latter faded from view. Professor Cajori backs up his argument with examples from manuscripts of the period. It is thought by some that the changes from double stroke to single stroke dollar signs parallel changes from asset-backed currency to credit backed currency. It appears that nobody really knows or has any documentary evidence as to the meaning of the single and/or double line $ sign until one studies a one-dollar stamp. Close examination of such will immediately reveal that somebody certainly knows the difference between the symbol. A bill or judgment for a $ does not support an action. If someone knows what a $ is then the court must surely know because the judgment herein contains the single line $ sign and without clarification it is impossible for Jagoo Jones to know what it means in this action. Therefore, clarification is mandatory so that I can comply with your PAYMENT request. I cannot tender a $ until I know what a $ is.
From: firstname.lastname@example.org [mailto:email@example.com] On Behalf Of JcP
Sent: Tuesday, September 10, 2013 1:25 PM
Subject: [tips_and_tricks] Re: Posting two documents.
There is usually NO $ (dollar sign) sign on tax bills or fines… you could give them a 10,000,000 Zimbabwe Note (?)
...take a look at U.S. Supreme Court Hagar v. Reclamation District, 111 U.S. 701 (1884)
"The acts of Congress making the notes of the United States a legal tender do not apply to involuntary contributions in the nature of taxes or assessments exacted under state laws, but only to debts in the strict sense of the term; that is, to obligations founded on contracts, express or implied, for the payment of money."
If I am understanding this correctly, they (US Corp, et. al.) can't require us to pay our property taxes or “fines” via FRN's (notes). HJR192 states that they can't demand a specific form of payment. We have just been trained to give them frn's.