For a theologically charged book, it could have just been that the Greek speaking Church liked what he said and Rome did not. We know from their backgrounds that Justin and Irenaeus COULD have written in Greek. I am not saying they didn't, but it wouldn't help me if they did in their case.
Josephus wrote from the comfort of Rome and did not write in Latin and we KNOW that because he told us so. Yet parts of what he wrote only survived in Latin. However, Josephus is not much help in finding what I'm looking for since he probably learned Greek before moving to Rome too.
A true vulgare usage should spawn a local dialect under normal cases. Our modern world has a hard time appreciating that since the advent of TV / radio / etc has killed a lot of the local dialects that used to exist in europe. But that would be the norm.
--- In firstname.lastname@example.org, "Barry H." <nebarry@...> wrote:
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: JV
> To: email@example.com
> Sent: Friday, April 13, 2012 7:24 PM
> Subject: [textualcriticism] What Language Did Justin or Irenaeus write in?
> >What is the basis for concluding they wrote in Greek?
> For Justin, the fact that all surviving manuscripts of his work are in
> Greek? That there is never any hint that he wrote in any other language?
> That he studied Greek philosophy? Similarly for Irenaeus. We know from
> what survives to us that he originally wrote in Greek, and what we have from
> him in other languages is clearly translation.
> I suggest that you do some research in standard references.
> N.E. Barry Hofstetter M.A., M.Div., Th.M.
> Vice-President for Academic Affairs
> The North American Reformed Seminary