Take Ephesians 2:8 for instance. In most manuscripts there are punctuation marks added to the verse, some there are not. And according to where the punctuation marks are added it could change theology quite a bit. Especially in a controversial verse such as this.
So my question is this, who decided where and how a verse was to be punctuated? And when were they added?
I would like to here if there are differing opinions between Dr. Ehrman and Dr. Wallace, but would look forward to reading any discussion about punctuation and who and why it would be added to the text. Especially in light of how it could easily effect theology.
Thank you for your participation.