> From: Ron Price <ron.price@...>
> To: Synoptic-L <Synoptic-L@...>
> Subject: [Synoptic-L] CRISTOS and the Synoptic Problem (was: Mk. 9:29
> Date: Wednesday, March 29, 2000 5:04 AM
> It is highly significant that Mark 8:29 reads: "SU EI hO CRISTOS"
> whereas in the equivalent passage Matt 16:16 reads: "SU EI hO CRISTOS hO
> hUIOS TOU QEOU".
> As the phrase "the son of God" applied to Jesus *is* later
> theologizing, the texts quoted give a clear indication that if there is
> a literary dependence here (as I'm sure there is), it is Matthew which
> is dependent on Mark.
I really don't see why we need to assume that the phrase "the son of God"
as applied to Jesus should necessarily be seen as "later theologizing". I
think this phrase can be applied to any Jewish believer. After all, see
The Lord said to me, "You are my son"
So in this case, it seems to me, this would actually argue for Mt's version
of this passage preceding Mk's version.
Besides, one may also bring up the Hebrew Mt where the "Son of God" is
preferred to "Christ". As you may recall, I demonstrated conclusively that
HMt could not have derived from the Liege harmony or any other known
medieval text, so it may be presumed to be ancient.
Yuri Kuchinsky | Toronto | http://www.trends.ca/~yuku/bbl/bbl.htm
Biblical history list http://www.egroups.com/group/loisy
The goal proposed by Cynic philosophy is apathy, which is
equivalent to becoming God -=O=- Julian