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• k^2 - k*(k+1) leaves k remaining not k*(k-1) or k*(k+1) + k*(k-1) = 2*k^2 Does this affect your proof? Could you send you mail with shorter lines, my
Message 1 of 45 , Jan 3, 2001
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k^2 - k*(k+1) leaves k remaining not k*(k-1)

or k*(k+1) + k*(k-1) = 2*k^2

Could you send you mail with shorter lines,
my printer won't print the long ones.

Could you also send me a copy of your proof as
an attachment.

Thank you,

Milton L. Brown
miltbrown@...

Dick Boland wrote:

> Hello,
>
> Yes I can. The distribution function is simply stated as follows,
>
> For any integer k>4, the first k^2 primes will be exactly distributed as follows:
>
> k*(k+1) primes between 1 and (p(k^2)+1)/2, and the remaining k*(k-1) primes will be distributed between ((p(k^2)+1)/2+1) and p(k^2).
>
> The way I discovered it was by creating a mathematical model based on "if Goldbach's Conjecture were not true, what properties must the first (lowest 2*g) exception have?" I narrowed this down to a proof that it must have the property that there can only be k^2 "odd primes" up to 2*g and that they must be distributed k*(k+1) "odd primes" below g and k*(k-1) "odd primes" between g & 2*g.
>
> But before you numerically reach the highest "odd prime" < 2*g that must represent a (k^2)th odd prime, you have just passed the (k^2)th prime in light of including "2" as a prime. So the (k^2)th prime, which is an exact point in the distribution of primes occurs one prime before the (k^2)th odd prime. What you find is that because primes are distributed in this manner, you can never restore the balance needed for an exception. Or more obviously, you can never develop enough order, enough compositeness, to support an exception to the conjecture.
>
> As for my claims, I have toned them down and I am more comfortable now that I understand and have taken steps to protect myself. Which is a major concern of mine because this is my ticket to transform my life into the profession for which I seem to have been born. I haven't worked this hard to be left in the dust and have others take the credit. It may sound harsh, but I didn't mean it to put anybody off, quite the opposite, I am seeking help to allow this work to see the light of day and to support me so that the rest of what I am capable of proving can also see the light of day.
>
> -Dick Boland
>
>
>
> omega@... wrote:
> >
> > I have rigidly proven Goldbach's Conjecture. It's amazing because the thing I found to finally prove it is "THE" prime number distribution function. Did this really escape everybody?
> >
>
> Hello Dick,
>
> I really dont know what to think of this. My first thought is that its a rather early 1 April post after reading your claims in the beginning...
>
> Can you explain cq summarize for the mere mortals on this list what THE prime number distribution function is and how you discovered it?
>
> W
> --
> http://www.plex.nl/~reney/primepage.html
>
> [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
>
>
> Unsubscribe by an email to: primenumbers-unsubscribe@egroups.com
> The Prime Pages : http://www.primepages.org
>
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>
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• From: Milton Brown Date: 12/21/05 16:35:16 To: Werner D. Sand; primenumbers@yahoogroups.com Subject: RE: [PrimeNumbers] Goldbach These messages about
Message 45 of 45 , Dec 21 1:46 PM
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From: Milton Brown
Date: 12/21/05 16:35:16

These messages about Goldbach's Conjecture are not
supposed to be to this mailing list (also the Riemann Hypothesis).

There are separate mailing lists for these.

Kermit says.

Milton! You surprise me.

Goldbach's conjecture IS about prime numbers. It's doesn't matter that
there exist mailing lists specifically about Goldbach's conjecture.

[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
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