--- In email@example.com
, Paul Leyland <paul@...> wrote:
> On Mon, 2010-11-15 at 12:43 +0000, Mark wrote:
> > Yes, somewhat seriously, I had heard that the sum of the inverses of
> > the prime powers with exponent > 1 converges, while of course the sum
> > of the primes inverses does not.
> Given that the sum of the inverses of the integers with exponent > 1
> converges, and the primes are a proper subset of the integers, this is
> not particularly surprising.
I knew that at one time, thanks for the reminder. As
says, it converges to Pi^2/6.