> In a message dated 12/31/02 10:16:33 PM Eastern Standard Time,
> firstname.lastname@example.org writes:
> > > the existence of a movie in no way affects the books already
> > > out there.
> > But it DOES affect =the response of the public= to the books already out
> > there.
> I don't see this. Again, "The book was better than the movie" is a modern
I'm coming out of lurking to ask sparkdog to articulate for us in a bit more
depth what he means by 'the existence of a movie /in no way/ [emphasis mine,
of course] affects the books already out there.' So far, I've seen the
assertion, the denial of the assertion (with an example of how the movie does
affect the book) which would seem to deflate sparkdog's original thesis, and
then a denial of the denial, but again without any actual defense -- just
Sparkdog, please elucidate what you mean by 'the existence of a movie in no
way affects the books already out there.' By itself, that statement is so
large in its scope as to be almost meaningless.
Matthew Winslow mwinslow@... http://x-real.firinn.org/
"Poets have been mysteriously silent on the topic of cheese."
Currently reading: J.R.R. Tolkien: Author of the Century