Ken Litwak wrote:
> I know that it's commonly assumed by many scholars that
> the NT writers used a Greek translation, related in some
> way to the lXX as we know it...
> What would be the most efficient way to demonstarte that,
> for my specific purposes, Luke-Acts uses the LXX primarily
> when citing the Sriptures of Israel? Thanks.
As someone has said, you could start by laying out all the OT passages and
allusions in Luke and Acts and comparing them with the modern Tenach and
with the LXX. (Not hard to do with a computer and software like the Sword
I don't know if that'll prove that St Luke used the LXX, but I think you'll
find you can defend his at least usually using a text tradition related more
to the one underlying the LXX than to the modern Masoretic text.
Remember to include the Scribes' testing Christ with a story of a woman
married in succession to seven men, each of whom dies - an allusion to the
tale of Tobit.
Here's a table that could help you get started:
Hope that's helpful.
Philip Silouan Thompson