I am keen to discuss the aspect of the thread you highlight below but I am
sure others will be too.
In terms of turn-taking it seems most reasonable for me to hang back for the
my general line would be that Luke wrote proto-Luke before having access to
Mark and in effect combined the little he knew of an annointing account with
a parable along a redactional theme that emphasised salvation, women,
outcasts, Jesus and John; (he may have been influenced by proto-Johannine
tradition of some sort, ie Jesus knew what was in a man, that is what Simon
was thinking about him and the woman). Matthew has a parallel parable, again
linked to the same Jesus and John material but he takes this in a different
redactional direction in terms of conflict with the Pharisees. Perhaps both
parables, together with the Jesus and John debate were originally found
together in a shared source, (I won't get specific). Matthew has access to
Mark in terms of the anointing episode. When Luke (or more probably a later
redactor) incorporates Marcan blocks into proto-Luke he runs into a problem
with the anointing account. He decides to leave it out in order to avoid a
doublet, having commited himself to a conflation in his existing material
whichhe does not wish to disrupt, I presume because it has some communal
status. Proto-John is written taking into account readers / hearers of Mark.
In a second addition a full account of the raising and the anointing are
included. I am not specifying if the second addition was by the same hand
for a different audience.
I would however add this, I think the proto-Lucan source material together
with the Johannine material both share a witness to the same incident being
connected to a debate about John the Baptist; John 10:40-42 has an important
bearing on this, as does Jesus leaving Bethany to go to Bethany with no
parethetic explanation. If however we follow Pierson Parker's line, Jesus
returns to where it all began, Beth -Ani, where he was annointed / baptised.
The major commentators disagree with Parker, most repeat each other or fail
to address the problems of two Bethanys (nicely matching the two
annointings). Parker's position has problems. If however he was correct it
might mean that the author of John 1:28 was writing from East of the Jordan,
perhaps from Pella in the late 60's with a second edition being developed
for Greek readers, perhaps in Alexandria, in the 70's and with final
redactional material being added in Ephesus in the 80's-90's.
Leaving aside Parker, and thinking in historical terms, I do think we have
an historical note in John:10: 41-42 with a double emphasis on 'many' and a
socially significant event implicitly taking place in the in the location of
the 'House of the Poor', whether East or West of the Jordan. This 'mass
movement' would have been sufficient to have afforded Jesus some protection
as he entered Jerusalem, when others from the city came out to meet him. It
seems most plausable that those that who went out from Jerusalem did so not
simply because one man approached on a donkey but because this man
approached with 'many'.
>BTW, I asked you some questions pertaining to your view on the
>relationship between the Johannine episode and the Synoptic parallels
>(if they are indeed parallels). It would be interesting to have your
>reply - or if somebody else would like to comment on those questions.
I hope my thoughts help get the thread rolling. I will now shut up for a
while and give others a turn.
Bill Bullin (Private Student, East Sussex).
P.S. Does your 2003 article's scepticism of esotericism and 4G preclude the
influence of something akin to the Jewish mysticism as attested by the
Qumran and Scrolls and in the early Jewish literature or the Greek, Egyptian
and quasi-Persian mystery religions? Put differently, should a man born
blind be permitted to recite the Shema, (Mishna Hagigah 2:1; T. Megillah
All the best,
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