Bill Ross wrote:
> >>I'm curious what leads you to conclude that the 1 Thessalonians and
> Revelations pericopes you cite have the Johannine community as their
> specific point of reference.
> 1Jo 2:
> 18 Little children, it is the last time: and as ye have heard that
> antichrist shall come, even now are there many antichrists; whereby we
> know that it is the last time.
> 19 ***They went out from us***, but they were not of us; for if they
> had been of us, they would no doubt have continued with us: but they
> went out, that they might be made manifest that they were not all of us.
> Antichristian views of Jesus were aberrations of John's high
> Christology. 1 John acts as a corrective of those who went off the deep
> end into the idea of Jesus being divine, rather than the locus of the
> Word of God (the LOGOS). That is why John begins with affirming the very
> concrete nature of Jesus, the forgiveness of sin and the believer also
> being children of God:
> 1Jo 4:17 Herein is our love made perfect, that we may have boldness in
> the day of judgment: because as he is, so are we in this world.
I note with interest that this is not an answer to the question raised. Can you
provide your reasons for assuming as you do that the "mystery of iniquity" is
not only the antichrist, but that it is the antichrist that the author of 1 John
has in view? What is your warrant for reading 1 John through Paul?
And a side note -- I believe it is general List policy that one should avoid
doing exegesis on the basis of an English translation of the texts you are
trying to unpack, especially the KJV. I'd be grateful, especially when you are
trying to make the case that a Pauline idea and a Johannine idea are one and the
same, that you argue on the basis of the Greek text.
Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon.)
1500 W. Pratt Blvd. #1
Chicago, IL 60626