> It's very puzzling. You should be aware that some of the manuscripts
> have the word "Greeks" at v. 17, and thus read "all of them," probably
> meaning "all the Jews." Indeed a few manuscripts do read "all the Jews."
> Text criticism isn't my specialty, but my guess would be that the
> to the Greeks doesn't belong, since it doesn't make any sense. (Before
> ask, I can't imagine how it got into some manuscripts if it wasn't
Here's what Metzger says in "A Textual Commentary..."
"In order to identify the 'all' who seized and beat Sosthenes, the ruler
of the synagogue, the Western and later ecclesiastical texts (and hence the
AV) add the identifying words, 'the Greeks,' i.e. the Gentile community.
Several minuscule manuscripts read 'all the Jews,' which is much more
unlikely to represent the real situation.
At the close of the verse the Latin text of codex Bezae after BHMATOS is
erased and nothing is now legible, but it is fair to assume that it
corresponded with the Latin; Clark reconstructs TOTE hO GALLIWN PROSEPOIEI
Then there's an additional note at the bottom of the page (411) that says:
"According to a suggestion made by C. A. Phillips, behind the two forms
of text one may postulate the Syriac verb ...., which , according to
Brockelmann's 'Lexicon Syriacum' means primarily avertit (occulos, faciem)
but also non curavit, neglexit (Bulletin of the Bezan Club, v , p. 44,
cf. D. Plooij, ibib., ix , p. 16)."
(Sorry, I know no Syriac, so I can't reproduce the verb. Perhaps another
can do so.)
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