>I'm afraid I don't quite follow you on this step. If
>I understand you
>correctly - you are proposing what I would call >a
>to explain Mt. But I see no reason to justify the
>use of Rev to
>explain an ambiguous passage in Mt. We can import
>the Rev passage to
>make sense of Mt - but I see no evidence within Mt
>that would justify
>this move. I see no reason to posit literary or even
>connections between Mt and Rev. Rev seems to orbit
>in a more
Sorry to be so vague. What I meant primarily by this
was that the questions you asked previously are nearly
identical to those raised for the Rev 20 text. They
tend to be more comprehensively discussed there.
>Simply sharing a apocalyptic approach does not mean
>will signify the same things. Mt and Rev use
>differently and so attempting to understand one by
>the other I think
>will tend to suggest false comparisons.
Excellent point, and I�m with you to a degree. We
must let Matthew be Matthew and look to him primarily
for his own understanding of the pericope. Thus we
look at themes, language, OT allusions, etc. I agree
that just because they share a similar portion of
genre (if we can call apocalyptic that) and canonical
status can lead to, as you say, �false comparisons�.
(I must add this applies not just to using Revelation
in Matthew, but also Mark in Matthew � a method too
often used in my opinion).
While I do recognize validity in a �canonical� reading
I have more in mind what I consider an �intertextual�
reading. That is, there are texts in the Assumption of
Moses, T. Levi and Rev which are quite similar to the
Matthean texts. While one must examine each of these
texts and contexts in detail before one can discern
what, if any, comparisons can be made, I think that
the fact that the issue of the binding of Satan is one
so rarely attested in either Jewish or Christian
sources from antiquity some degree of consultation is
in order. Moreover, if you examine the Matthean text
without regard to Rev whatsoever, you run the risk of
assuming Matthew wrote in a theological vacuum when it
is more likely that he wrote within an evolving
Christian tradition. Again, their uses of the concept
may differ but to write off the Rev text off hand
because it is a different work than Matthew may
equally lead to a distortion. That being said, I must
confess a great deal of ignorance on apocalypticism in
Matthew so my ability to comment on it vis-�-vis
Revelation is quite limited.
I do want to ask, however, what you mean by �Rev seems
to orbit in a more Johannine universe�?
Daniel M. Gurtner
St. Mary�s College
University of St. Andrews, Scotland
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