--- In email@example.com
, "j_mach_wust" <machhezan@g...>
> Dave 'Hísilómë' wrote:
> > does anyone know how to explain the second A-tehta (both are
upside down) in the word "Spanish" in DTS 39 (AI 184)?
> > I understand the first one on top of parma, obviously placed on
the preceding consonant (oddly enough, the I-tehta at the end of the
word is placed on the _following_ consonant, harma [sh]), but what is
the second A-tehta on _nuumen_ for?
> > Basically, we have a word with two vowels here, yet there are
three tehta in the tengwar-spelling. One too many, or is there any
> > explanation for this?
> In this sample, Tolkien seems to have wavered between putting the
> vowel tehtar on the preceding tengwar or on the following:
> (a) vowel tehtar on preceding tengwar: yomo kn(?)atta, næsh@n@list
> (b) vowel tehtar on following tengwar: preyz, brit@n, nyuu
> (c) mixed (first on preceding, then on following): spænish, bæking
> The wavering between the two placing methods of the vowel tehar can
> also be observed in the two spellings of "Rivendell" in DTS 58
which I understand as being written in a phonemic tehtar mode as well
(since the l isn't doubled and since the first e is missing, a
feature that, however, isn't found in other phonemic modes, if I
[Right. This is also what you write in your very useful paper on
Tolkien's Phonetic English Tengwar Modes, in the section about
phonetic tehtar modes.
I was put out by the fact, though, that in "Spanish", Tolkien applies
both types of tehtar notation (on preceding/following consonant) _for
one and the same vowel_, as the A-tehtar on parma and on nuumen are
both used to indicate the "a" between "p" and "n".
This he didn't do in any other sample, as far as I can tell, incl.
the Rivendell sample or the other words in DTS 39, where he is either
consistent in his notation within single words or, at most, indicates
_different_ vowels of the same word in a different method (as
in "backing" with the first tehta on the preceding "b" and the second
on the following "ng"), but never the same vowel twice.
In other words, "Spanish" seems to be the only word where there is
one tehta too many (though, as you note, in "Rivendell" the opposite
is the case as we are "one short"), correct? Or have you noticed any
other samples where this occurs? And surely indicating the same vowel
twice also falls in the category "slip-ups" :).]