Well, I think (in Spanish) that 'Chicago' (especially when pronounced
[tshikaGo] a la espa�ol) IS a borrowing (from English). Interestingly, in
English, it is pronounced [sh@kago], which (except for a nasal [a]) is
virtually identical to the Miami pronunciation of the word meaning roughly
'skunk place' (other Algonquianists derive it from 'skunk cabbage' or other
stuff; don't believe it!). Btw, the word 'skunk' is also derived from the
same Algonquian root. In English, Chicago is almost never pronounced with
[tsh] (a daughter of mine goes to school there--I'll ask her to be sure, but
none of *my* buddies pronounce it that way). It's a bit more problematic to
characterize the 'English' pronunciation of Chicago in the middle of a
sentence otherwise in Spanish (as a code switch or as a borrowing) in the
speech of a full bilingual. I can see reasons in some circumstances for
going either way, depending on the cognitive state of the speaker.
On Wed, Jun 8, 2011 at 11:36 AM, Patricia Torres
> Karina, Jim, thanks a lot for adding new approaches to the debate.
> Jim, I'm glad you mentioned the phonological aspect. Several students
> "Chicago" as a borrowing and other wrote "spaghetti" when typing the audios
> (instead of Spanish "espagueti") because "it is pronounced in English",
> students said.
> Having said that, I cannot check now, but I am almost certain that in the
> corpus (the TV show in Spanish but produced in Miami), tag phrases such as
> "anyway" and "sorry" are pronounced following the phonological rules of
> English -at the beginning or the end of a phrase in Spanish. Young people
> here (Venezuela) from time to time use such tag phrases, but they
> them using Spanish phonemes (most evidently in the double 'r' in 'sorry').
> Interesting, for their follow-up (try to determine whether Spanglish is
> spreading to Latin America).
> Karina, none of the student has added a communicative dimension to the
> debate. I'm going to mention it... to see what new ideas they propose.
> On Tue, Jun 7, 2011 at 2:51 PM, Jim Fidelholtz <fidelholtz@...>
> > Hi, All (Hola a todos),
> > I'm very surprised that really no one seems to have mentioned the
> > phonological aspects in this discussion of borrowings vs. code switching.
> > The discussion has matured a bit since the topic was raised, oh, in the
> > 1990s, if memory serves, but many of the same points have been raised.
> > Specifically, consider the English word Bach (the composer). Anyone
> > minimally 'culto' (American, which means pretty minimally ;-)> )
> > the name [bax] (NB: the [x] is virtually identical to the Mexican Spanish
> > <j>), and this is true whether or not they have the slightest knowledge
> > German. Now, in earlier discussions, various persons maintained that this
> > was 'code-switching', but the facts presented in this paragraph indicate
> > that that position is an absurdity, since (1) not all who have that
> > pronunciation even know German and (2) German [x] is never the pure velar
> > like the Mexican voiceless velar fricative, but is either further back
> > (almost postvelar, as in [ba>x]) or almost palatal (prevelar, as in [i�]
> > <ich> 'I'), depending on the preceding vowel. In the same vein, I would
> > query how the putatively English word 'so' is pronounced in the example
> > given. If it is [sow], then there could be a decent case that it is a
> > of code switching. BUT if it pronounced [so] as in the expression 'so
> > de �', then it is a bona fide borrowing into Spanish. I have no doubt
> > there could be intermediate cases, as in the early stages of borrowing,
> > well.
> > Just a couple of thoughts on the subject.
> > Jim
> > --
> > James L. Fidelholtz
> > Posgrado en Ciencias del Lenguaje
> > Instituto de Ciencias Sociales y Humanidades
> > Benem�rita Universidad Aut�noma de Puebla, M�XICO
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James L. Fidelholtz
Posgrado en Ciencias del Lenguaje
Instituto de Ciencias Sociales y Humanidades
Benem�rita Universidad Aut�noma de Puebla, M�XICO
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