As far as the phrase 'Son of man' is concerned, it seems to me likely that
the great majority of Markan occurrences are in passages created by Mark
(the exceptions being in 8:38 and 13:26, loosely based on the logia, and
9:12 and 14:62, both part of late interpolations). This assessment of the
majority of the Markan Son of man passages is based on seeing how well they
match the perceived purpose of the author, and on how anomalous they would
be in various ways if taken as pure historical accounts.
Thus I see 2:27b-28 not as a translation, but as a Markan creation. The
question of whether verse 28 is translated correctly is surely based on the
flawed assumption of Markan lack of creativity.
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