I've always thought the discussion of Mark's ending seems to almost
completely ignore a significant possibility.
I don't think that the current ending of Mark is original, but it may
not be that Mark originally ended at 16:8 either.
An earlier version of Mark may have contained an ending with is now
totally lost. For some theological reason, it was removed very early,
and then much later the current ending was added. Obviously we don't
have much, if any, evidence for such a lost ending. But just because we
don't believe Mark's current ending is original, does not mean we must
automatically conclude that it originally ended with the empty tomb. The
only argument I can see that one might make in the way of evidence for
such a lost ending is that the later authors certainly seemed to agree
that a key narrative event was missing.
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