Ah thank you- that's what I was wondering. Does the original languages have a lot of homophones? Forms within a cultural context reflects the language and how it is structured. If those languages don't have a lot of homophones, then their use like that would not arise.
Now, if the Irish wrote Ghazals, there'd be use of homophones all over the punny place. Not that a well-trained bard or fillidh would need them to be heard. And the M horde would probably roast ghazals with some garlic over a nice bed of coals. But both would down them with some mead or other beverage- no? (And perhaps the early Persians as well.....)
Brett Lawrence <o_secca@...> wrote:
If you are writing an 'authentic' Ghazal, then to alter your refrain or Radif, by using a homophone would not be allowed according to the traditional rules as I know them.
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