In a message dated 9/1/2001 9:58:22 AM Eastern Daylight Time,
<< This is
also why it is not uncommon for authentically minded cooks to avoid
recipes from post-1500 as this is when the techniques (especially with
those snooty french) started to change. >>
Im confused. I thought that if it was pre 1600 it was considered period.
However it is not ok to use cooking methods which are post 1500... that
leaves a hundred year gap. Or did I miss something? If methods were
begining to be used that lead to a greater cooking renaissance in the 1600s,
that doesnt make them not period. I really MUST be missing something here,
please set me straight?
Kahlen du Coeur
If you want to touch the past TOUCH A ROCK. If you want to touch the present
TOUCH A ROSE. If you want to touch the future TOUCH A LIFE.......Unknown