I noticed that too, Dave. One can only realize that the second century was one
of very fluid texts and even more divergent ways to interpret what each sect
had. Certainly, Tertullian and Marcion had non-matching texts of Galatians, too.
Given that, doesn't it seem a bit problematic to try to identify "layers" of
texts, especially attempting to relate them to the first century? Shards of
Aramaic are not evidence. On every one of my coins, I have this curious "E
pluribus unum," which of course would suggest (after the USA has run its course)
a layer of "ancient Roman Latin speakers" in America. They probably, according
to the language experts, set up the earliest colonies.

Dennis Dean Carpenter
Dahlonega, Ga.



----- Original Message -----
From: David @ Comcast
To: gpg@yahoogroups.com
Cc: Synoptic@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Friday, July 10, 2009 5:34 PM
Subject: [Synoptic-L] Matthew in Marcion?





One of the curious points made by Tertullian is that Marcion erased from his
gospel passages that we do not see in canonical Luke. Instead, the passages
referred to are in Matthew:

"It is, however, well that Marcion's god does claim to be the enlightener of
the nations, that so he might have the better reason for coming down from
heaven; only, if it must needs be, he should rather have made Pontus his
place of descent than Galilee. But since both the place and the work of
illumination according to the prophecy are compatible with Christ, we begin
to discern that He is the subject of the prophecy, which shows that at the
very outset of His ministry, He came not to destroy the law and the
prophets, but rather to fulfil them; [Mt 5.17] for Marcion has erased the
passage as an interpolation.

It will, however, be vain for him to deny that Christ uttered in word what
He forthwith did partially indeed. For the prophecy about place He at once
fulfilled. From heaven straight to the synagogue. As the adage runs: "The
business on which we are come, do at once." Marcion must even expunge from
the Gospel, "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel;
"[Mt 15.24] and, "It is not meet to take the children's bread, and to cast
it to dogs," [Mt 15.26] ----in order, forsooth, that Christ may not appear
to be an Israelite."

Is this an indication that Tertullian was simply mistaken, or should we take
it as evidence that his copy of Luke was not the same as ours, and (perhaps)
contained Mt 5:17, and the pericope we see in Mt 15:21-28?

David Inglis

Lafayette, CA, 94549

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