One could say that those called 'gods' by God Himself could also be called 'divine.'  But in either case it would merely refer to those faithful angels of God and those men whom God appointed to some task and who are in no way equal to God Himself.

More accurately, however, John, if he wanted such a meaning, could have used the NT Greek word which actually means 'divine,' which is 'theios.'  This is an adjective which is also applied to angels and men.  What we have at John 1:1c is a noun ('a god') which is also applied to angels and men.

They may be saying nearly the same thing (the Word is not God), but the more accurate rendering is "and the Word was a god."

--- In JWquestions-and_answers@yahoogroups.com, YTNJ <contact@...> wrote:
>
> I have to say neither is incorrect, both are correct ad the definition works for either use.
>
>
> Sent from my iPhone
>
> On 03/06/2011, at 13:21, teddy_trueblood no_reply@yahoogroups.com wrote:
>
> > Scripture tells us that God's angels and certain men chosen by God were
> > sometimes called gods. This in no way makes them even remotely equal to
> > the Most High God!
> >
> > In NT Greek when a nominative count noun, such as 'theos,' is without
> > the article (as it is in John 1:1c - see link previously provided), it is
> > understood to be indefinite. Examples were given in the study provided
> > by the previous link.
> >
> > This means that John 1:1c intends "a god," just as John 4:19 intends "a
> > prophet" or John 18:37 intends "a king."
> >
> > .................................
> >
> > ...................................
> >
> > --- In JWquestions-and_answers@yahoogroups.com, YTNJ contact@
> > wrote:
> > >
> > > I guess it depends on what you see the word to represent. The concept
> > of a god or God makes it hard to work with on the grounds that Greek
> > does not differentiate between capital letters and no capital letters.
> > Effectively the term "ho theos" mean when translated correctly "the god"
> > where as the non use of the defining article and the use of the term
> > "theos" by itself means "god". What is the difference with this form if
> > translation? Also let's be bluntly honest here, Michael the Archangel is
> > the Christ. He became the Archangel Michael after he was resurrected as
> > Jesus and he returned to Heaven to sit at the right hand of Yahweh God.
> > >
> > > With this, tell me truthfully, if Yahweh is God, and Michael is and
> > angel, even though he is elevated above all other angels, is he really a
> > god in any sense? He can still do nothing that Yahweh God has not give
> > him authority to do. With that said he is still divine no matter what
> > and always has been a divine being. The first ever created divine being
> > to be exact, thats what the bible tells us.
> > >
> > > Yahweh Bless you
> > > Sean
> > >
> > >
> >
>